I know that by Taylor's theorem, a function $f$ under some assumptions, can be computed by $$f(x)=f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+\cdots+\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n+\frac{f^{(n+1)}(\xi)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{(n+1)}$$ If $f$ itself is a polynomial of degree $n$, then $$f(x)=f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+\cdots+\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n.$$ This can be directly deduced from Taylor's theorem as I mentioned.
However, since this is a much simpler result, can we prove it without using that theorem? And is there intuitive understanding of the above equation?