I'm new to 3D-coordinate systems and this is a question I faced in my textbook.
I first tried to imagine the entire thing in 2D: so the same question for the sphere $(x-1)^2+(y-1)^2=1$. It's much simpler to answer this. Keeping in mind that $\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$, the point is $\left(1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$.
By the same logic, I tried to guess that on the 3D coordinate system, this point would be $\left(1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$. But this point is not on the sphere.
My intuition tells me that the answer could be $\left(1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}},1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}},1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)$ and the online 3D grapher I found proved me right. But I don't actually know how to reach this answer.
Any help will be appreciated, thanks.