My textbook presents the following practice problem:
Let $\vec{v_1} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \vec{v_2} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \space $ and $H = \{\begin{bmatrix} s \\ s \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} : s \in \mathbb{R}\}$. Then every vector in $H$ is a linear combination of $v_1$ and $v_2$ because $\begin{bmatrix} s \\ s \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} = s\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} + s\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}$. Is the set $\{\vec{v_1}, \vec{v_2}\}$ a basis for $H$?
Our textbook says that a set of vectors $S$ is a basis for a subspace $H$ if:
(i) $S$ is a linearly independent set
(ii) $H = Span(S) = Span\{\vec{s_1}, ..., \vec{s_n}\}$.
I'm struggling to understand why the set $\{\vec{v_1}, \vec{v_2}\}$ is not a basis for $H$. I know the first property is satisfied because the two vectors are in fact linearly independent.
I'm guessing the second property is where this fails, but I don't understand why. If the problem statement itself says that "every vector in $H$" can be written as a linear combination of the two vectors $\vec{v_1}$ and $\vec{v_2}$, then that by definition implies that $H = Span(S)$, doesn't it?
The textbook argues that this is not a basis for $H$ because $\vec{v_1}$ and $\vec{v_2}$ aren't even in $H$, but I don't see how that's relevant to the point we're trying to prove.
Any help is greatly appreciated. Please note that this is my first linear algebra course, so simple answers would be great. Thanks!