I've been stuck on this problem below and have a few more identical to it on my assignment. And yes I've Googled around and found a few links on here regarding to the density of $\mathbb{Q} \subseteq \mathbb{R}$, but I'm just not getting it.
Can somebody please dumb the steps down for me to prove it? It is an intro class, so I'm still trying to get down some of the vocab.
Prove that, if $y$ and $z$ are irrational numbers such that $y < z$, then there exists some $x \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that $y < x < z$.
(I'm unsure of the whole process, otherwise I'd attempt to show some work...)
Thank you