Extremely hard high school mathematical induction question. Part i is easy. Part ii not so sure but I'm not sure how to get rid of the pi/2 when tan pi/2 is non existent. I think multiplying that given equation by 2 may work? and then creating several fractions such as $$ {x+y} \over {1-xy} $$ $$ {x+z} \over {1-xz} $$ $$ {z+y} \over {1-zy} $$
THen for part iii.... absolutely no clue