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Let $f:[0,\infty )\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be an increasing function, such that $\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{x^{2}}\cdot \int_{0}^{x}f(t)dt=1$.

Prove that exists $\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\frac{f(x)}{x}$ and calculate this limit.


If $f$ would be continuous, we'd have $1=\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{x^{2}}\cdot \int_{0}^{x}f(t)dt=\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\frac{f(x)}{2x}$, therefore $\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\frac{f(x)}{x}=2.$
But we don't know if $f$ is continuous or not, and I wasn't able to find any other idea.

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marked as duplicate by Paramanand Singh calculus Sep 29 '17 at 3:04

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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Suppose $x=n$ is an integer. By the Stolz-Cesaro theorem, \begin{eqnarray} 1&=&\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty }\frac{\int_0^xf(t)dt}{x^2}=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{\int_0^nf(t)dt}{n^2}=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{\int_n^{n+1}f(t)dt}{(n+1)^2-n^2}\\ &=&\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{\int_n^{n+1}f(t)dt}{2n+1}=\frac12\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{\int_n^{n+1}f(t)dt}{n} \end{eqnarray} and hence $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{\int_n^{n+1}f(t)dt}{n}=2 $$ Since $f(t)$ is increasing, one has $$ f(n)\le\int_n^{n+1}f(t)dt\le f(n+1) $$ and hence $$ \frac{f(n)}{n}\le\frac{\int_n^{n+1}f(t)dt}{n}\le \frac{f(n+1)}{n+1}\frac{n+1}{n}\le \frac{f(n+1)}{n+1}. $$ Letting $n\to\infty$, one obtains $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{f(n)}{n}=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{\int_{n}^{n+1}f(t)dt}{n}=2.$$ For general $x>0$, let $\lfloor x\rfloor=n$ and then $$ n\le x<n+1.$$ Since $f(t)$ is increasing, one has $$ f(n)\le f(x)\le f(n+1) $$ and hence $$ \frac{f(n)}{n+1}\le \frac{f(x)}{x}\le \frac{f(n+1)}{x}\le\frac{f(n+1)}{n}. $$ By the Squeeze Theorem, one has $$ \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{x}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{f(n)}{n}=2.$$

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  • 2
    $\begingroup$ The Stolz-Cesaro test says the INVERSE! If $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{b_{n+1}-b_n}$$ exists, then so does $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n}}{b_{n}}$$ and they are equal. Not the other way around! $\endgroup$ – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis Sep 28 '17 at 18:38
  • $\begingroup$ @YiorgosS.Smyrlis, see math.ksu.edu/~nagy/snippets/stolz-cesaro.pdf $\endgroup$ – xpaul Sep 28 '17 at 19:11
  • $\begingroup$ The link you gave says exactly the same thing as the comment from @YiorgosS.Smyrlis. What is needed here is to show that the ratio $f(x) /x$ tends to a limit. $\endgroup$ – Paramanand Singh Sep 28 '17 at 19:36
  • $\begingroup$ @ParamanandSingh, see the remark in the link. $\endgroup$ – xpaul Sep 28 '17 at 20:28
  • $\begingroup$ All those remarks are equivalent formulations. There is nothing new in the remarks apart from the form of the equations involved. Perhaps you misinterpreted some of those remarks. $\endgroup$ – Paramanand Singh Sep 29 '17 at 2:44

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