You can prove that
$$\mathbb R^3\setminus\{(0,0,z)\mid z\in\mathbb R\}\simeq \mathbb R^2\setminus\{(0,0)\}\simeq S^1,$$
where $\simeq$ means the spaces are homotopically equivalent. Since equivalent spaces have isomorphic fundamental groups, you're done.
Addition: Proving $A:=\Bbb R^2\setminus\{(0,0)\}\simeq S^1$: First we can define $i:S^1\to A$ to be just the inclusion map. Then take $r:A\to S^1$ to be
$$r(x)=\frac x{|x|}.$$
We want to show that $i\circ r\simeq \operatorname{id}_A$ and $r\circ i\simeq \operatorname{id}_{S^1}$. But $r\circ i$ is actually already equal to the identity function, so only the first one is left.
So, define $H:A\times I\to A$ by
$$H(x,t)=(1-t)\frac x{|x|}+tx$$
(for a fixed $x$, this is a straight line between $x/|x|$ and $x$). Note that $H$ is well defined and continuous. It is also easy to see that $H_0=i\circ r$ and $H_1=\operatorname{id}_A$.
Showing that $\Bbb R^3\setminus\{(0,0,z)\mid z\in\Bbb R\}\simeq\Bbb R^2\setminus\{(0,0)\}$ can be done in a similar way. Use the maps $r'(x,y,z)=(x,y)$ and $i'(x,y)=(x,y,0)$.