The original question is:
Suppose a man got two matchboxes in his pocket, each matchbox contains n matchsticks. Each time this guy would randomly pick up one matchbox, then consume a matchstick. One by one, he will eventually pick up a box and find it empty. Ask: what's the probability of having m matchsticks in the other matchbox?
The answer to this question is easy to follow:
Since this guy picked up his matchboxes (2n+1-m) times, and every time he has two choices; overall there are $2^{2n+m-1}$ different ways
Consider two different circumstances. It is possible that he picks up matchbox A the last time, so in the previous 2n-m rounds, he has picked matchbox A n times, and this yields $\binom{2n-m}n$ ways to pick up matchboxes. Similarly, he might pick up matchbox B and realize it's empty, both circumstances are possible and the results are symmetric. Therefore, the overall probability would be $$2\binom{2n-m}n/2^{2n+1-m}=\binom{2n-m}n/2^{2n-m}$$
Strangely, the final equation seems that one can simply use the binomial distribution to solve the problem.
However, I think the coincidence happens because two matchboxes have equal probabilities to be picked up. If I alter the question to: if this guy has probability of 1/3 to pick up box A and 2/3 to pick up box B, when he picks up an empty box (A or B is not specified), what's the probability of having m matchsticks in the other box? How will the answer be different?
ADDED:
I had thought about a binomial solution before, but then I felt something wasn't right. If I calculate the probability of picking up A as empty box and had B still have m matchsticks, and the probability of picking up B as empty box, then add them up; then in the initial question, why shoudn't the final answer be:
$$2*\binom{2n-m}n/2^{2n-m}$$ insteand?
Because $\binom{2n-m}n/2^{2n-m}$ seems to me only indicate probability of hitting either box A or box B n times in (2n-m) trails. However, in the original answer, one seems had already incorporated both circumstances into the consideration.