Came across this while reading Temam's text on Navier Stokes. Lemma 2.4 states that the divergence operator $\nabla\cdot$ maps $\bf{H}_0^1(\Omega)$ $\textit{onto}$ $L^2(\Omega)/\mathbb{R}$ where the latter is the subspace of $L^2(\Omega)$ of elements $f$ satisfying $\int_\Omega f=0$. To prove this statement we consider $A=\nabla$ (the gradient operator) defined on $L^2(\Omega)$ (mapping into $\bf{H}^{-1}(\Omega)$). Earlier, it'd been shown that the operator $A$ restricted to $L^2(\Omega)/\mathbb{R}$ is injective. So if we simply set $R(A):=A(L^2(\Omega)/\mathbb{R})\,(=A(L^2(\Omega))$, we know that $A$ is an isomorphism between $L^2(\Omega)/\mathbb{R}$ and $R(A)$.
So far, I don't think anything profound has been said. Now, the proof proceeds with the following statement (paraphrased): by transposition, the adjoint $A^*\in L(\bf{H_0^1(\Omega)}$ $,L^2(\Omega))$ is an isomorphism from the $\textit{orthogonal}$ of $R(A)$ $\textit{onto}$ $L^2(\Omega)/\mathbb{R}$.
My question is, what's the justification for this last statement?? Perhaps I'm a little rusty, but I'm guessing I'm failing to make the necessary manipulations to relate the ranges of $A$ and $A^*$ and the orthogonal spaces of them etc. etc.