Suppose a simple function $f$ has two representations $f=\displaystyle\sum^m_{i=1}a_i \textbf{1}_{B_k}$. For $\varepsilon=(\varepsilon_1,...,\varepsilon_m)\in \{0,1\}^m$, define $A_\varepsilon=A^{\varepsilon_1}\cap A^{\varepsilon_2}...A^{\varepsilon_m}$ where $A_k^0=A_k^{\complement}$ and $A_k^1=A_k$. Define similarly $B_\delta $ for $\delta\in \{0,1\}^n$. Set $f_{\varepsilon \delta}=\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^m \varepsilon_ka_k$ if $A_\varepsilon \cap B_\delta \ne \emptyset$ and $f_{\varepsilon \delta}=0 $ otherwise. Prove that for any measure $\mu$ $$\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^m a_i\mu(A_i)=\displaystyle\sum_{\varepsilon, \delta}f_{\varepsilon \delta} \mu(A_\varepsilon \cap B_\delta) \ \ \ \ \ \ (*)$$ and deduce that $$\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^m a_i\mu(A_i)=\displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^n b_i\mu(B_j)$$
I can understand the RHS of $(*)$,but I have no idea how to prove the equality. I tried to expand all the terms, but it was terrible.