Suppose $\beta$ is a limit ordinal. Then for all $\gamma < \beta$, $\mathbf{s}(\gamma) < \beta$.
Now I'm wondering if it makes sense to consider $\alpha = \mathbf{s}(\beta)$. If so, $\alpha$ is not a limit ordinal as it is a successor ordinal. It seems unintuitive, but I also don't see anything wrong with it, as $\alpha = \beta \cup \{ \beta \}$ appears to be well defined.
Am I missing something here? Cheers.