Prove or Disprove $∀a, b ∈ Z$, if $a ≡ b$ (mod 4) then the average of $a$ and $b$ has the same parity as $a$.
Classic case that I have an idea of how this works but not sure how to "prove" it. Was thinking a counterexample of the contrapositive might be easier too so if I come up with nothing down this avenue I'll move onto these.
Congruence implies $\frac{a-b}{4}$ is perfectly divisible and 4 divides into only even numbers.
I think only an odd pair of a and b or an even pair of a and b will prove to be congruent but that doesn't get me anywhere.
I know the average of two even's or two odd's can be even or odd but that doesn't seem to lead me anywhere.
I feel like I'm missing a key part about basic number theory around odds and evens or congruence that make the proof trivial but alas I'm in the rut. Any suggestions/hints/solutions will be studied hard!