Let $X$ and $Y$ be independent random normal variables such that $X\sim N(\mu _{X},\sigma _{X}^{2})$ and $Y\sim N(\mu _{Y},\sigma _{Y}^{2})$. Let $Z = X + Y$, so that $Z\sim N(\mu _{X}+\mu _{Y},\sigma _{X}^{2}+\sigma _{Y}^{2})$.
I'm wondering what is $f_X(x \mid Z = z)$, i. e. the probability distribution of X given Z.
I'm guessing that I can use the fact that $f_{X}(x\mid Z=z)f_{Z}(z)=f_{X,Z}(x,z)=f_{Z}(z\mid X=x)f_{X}(x)$, since I know $f_X$ and $f_Z$, and my intuition is that $f_{Z}(z\mid X=x)$ is just the probability distribution of a normal random variable with mean $x+\mu_Y$ and variance $\sigma _{Y}^{2}$, but I don't actually know the latter fact since I haven't proved it and so I'm not sure it's correct.
Another possibility I have considered is to calculate $f_{X,Z}$ (and use that to derive $f_X(x \mid Z = z)$ by using $f_{X}(y\mid Z=z)={\frac {f_{X,Z}(x,z)}{f_{Z}(z)}}$), but I need $Cov(X,Z)$ for that, and I don't know what it is.
I hope that this isn't too confused and that what I'm asking is clear enough!
Philippe