Let $\;f:\mathbb R^n \rightarrow \mathbb R^m\;$ and $\;W:\mathbb R^m \rightarrow \mathbb R_{+}\;$ two functions.
We'll denote $\;f_{x_i}=(f^1_{x_i},\dots,f^m_{x_i})\;\;\forall 1\le i\le n\;$ where $\;f^j_{x_i}=\frac{\partial f_j}{\partial x_i}\;\;\forall 1\le i\le n,1\le j\le m\;$.
Furthermore assume the $\;n \times n\;$ matrix $\;A=(a_{ij})_{1\le i,j\le n}\;$ with $\;a_{ij}=f_{x_i}\cdot f_{x_j} -{\delta}_{ij}(\frac {1}{2} {\vert \nabla f \vert}^2+W(f))\;$ where $\;\cdot \;$ stands for the Euclidean inner product and $\;\vert \cdot \vert \;$ is the Euclidean norm of the matrix.
Prove that $\;A+((\frac {1}{2} {\vert \nabla f \vert}^2+W(f))I=(\nabla f)^T(\nabla f)$
I'm pretty sure this "exercise" is quite easy but I miss something here. It is obvious that is sufficient to show $\;(\nabla f)^T(\nabla f)\;$ follows from $\;f_{x_i}\cdot f_{x_j}\;$ but I have no clue how to proceed.
With the above notation, all I can see is $\;(\nabla f)^T(\nabla f)=\begin{pmatrix} f_{x_1}\\ \;\cdot\\ \;\cdot\\ f_{x_n}\\ \end{pmatrix} ({f_{x_1}}^T, \dots, {f_{x_n}}^T)\;$
Does this somehow connect to $\;f_{x_i}\cdot f_{x_j}\;$?
Maybe what I'm asking is trivial, but I've no broad experience with matrices so I apologize in advance!
Any help would be valuable. Hints are also welcome!
Thanks