with equality iff all a's are equal.
My attempt at a solution:
Suppose n=2, if $a_1\geq a_2$. Clearly then $a_1 \geq a_2$, with equality if $a_1=a_2$ is true.
This is the step I'm not sure about
Then assume $a_1\geq a_{n-1}$, which implies that $a_1-a_{n-1}\geq0$. With equality when $a_1=a_{n-1}$
Also $a_{n-1}\geq a_n$ is given which implies that $a_{n-1}-a_n\geq 0$
We can then add these 2 inequalities $(a_1-a_{n-1})+(a_{n-1}-a_n) \geq 0$
We find that $a_1-a_n\geq 0$
Therefore, by induction
$a_1\geq a_n$, with equality iff all a's are equal.
I'm not sure if the second step works as I believe the property I'm trying to prove isn't really that $a_1 \geq a_n$ but that $a_1\geq a_2$ and $a_2\geq a_3$ implies $a_1\geq a_3$ and I assumed this property in the second step.
Appreciate any help/critique of my technique here.