Looking for answers on the site I came across this answer with 3 upvotes where I am having trouble to understand an integral. Having not enough reputation (SE requires 50 reputation at least and I did not have access to chat until after editing) I cannot comment the post and ask Sasha, the answerer for clarification.
The said user stated: If $X := \int_1^2 W_s^2 \, dW_s$ then $E[X]=0$ where $W_s$ is a Brownian motion.
Yet I cannot understand how he came to this conclusion.
I followed the next steps and started from a more general question starting with $X=\int_0^t W_s^2dW_s$ : 1)Ito's isometry tells me that :$$ E\left[ \left(\int_0^t W_s \, dW_s \right)^2 \right] = E \left[\int_0^t W_s^2 \, ds \right]$$
2) Fubini's theorem (if I did unsterdand correctly from this another answer by Byron Schmuland) that i have: $$ E \left[\int_0^t W_s^2 \, ds \right] = \int_0^t E[W_s^2] \, ds = \int_0^t s \, ds = \frac{t^2}{2}$$
3) applying this to the particular case i would end up with this primitive evaluated in the following bounds : $$\left[\frac{s^2}{2}\right]^2_1=1.5$$
Which is different than $E[X] =0$
I cannot see what I am doing wrong. On the form on the question are the \left \right brackets necessary for readability?