Is it possible to perform analytically the following integral? $$ \int d^n a_\alpha \exp \left[ -\frac{1}{2} (z_i -a_{\alpha}g_{\alpha i})C^{-1}_{ij} (z_j -a_{\beta}g_{\beta j}) \right] \exp \left[ -\frac{1}{2} (x_i -a_{\alpha}g_{\alpha i})C^{-1}_{ij} (x_j -a_{\beta}g_{\beta j}) \right] $$ where $C_{ij}$ is the symmetric $N$ X $N$ covariance matrix, $g_{\alpha i}$ is a $n$ X $N$ matrix, repeated indexes are summed over, and $n\le N$.
If $N=n$ and $\det g \neq 0$, then one can change variables and the integral becomes a simple convolution (and one sums the covariance matrixes and means). And if $n<N$?