Is the following proof Correct?
Theorem. Suppose $V$ is finite-dimensional with $\dim V \ge 2$. Prove that there exist $S,T\in\mathcal{L}(V,V)$ such that $ST \neq TS$.
Proof. Since $V$ is finite-dimensional and $\dim V = m\ge 2$ it follows that there exist a list of vectors $v_1,v_2,...,v_m$ basis for $V$, arguing from cases
Case-1$(m =2)$: Consider the linear transformations $S$ and $T$ defined as follows $$Tv_1=v_1,\ Tv_2=0$$ $$Sv_1=v_2,\ Sv_2 = v_1$$ consequently $$S(Tv_1)=Sv_1=v_2,\ S(Tv_2)=S(0) = 0$$ $$T(Sv_1)=Tv_2=v_1,\ T(Sv_2)=Tv_1 = v_1$$ evidently $ST\neq TS$.
Case-2$(m > 2)$: Consider now the linear transformations $S$ and $T$ defined by $$Tv_{j}=v_{m-j+1}$$ $$Sv_{j}=v_{j\bmod m+1}$$ consequently $$T(Sv_j) = v_{m-(j\bmod m+1)+1}$$ $$S(Tv_j) = v_{(m-j+1)\bmod m+1}$$
Assume now that there exists some $j\in\{1,2,...,m\}$ such that $$m-(j\bmod m+1)+1=(m-j+1)\bmod m+1$$ but then
$$\implies m-(j\bmod m+1)=(m-j+1)\bmod m$$ $$\implies m-(j\bmod m)-1=(m-j+1)\bmod m$$ $$\implies m-1=(m-j+1)\bmod m+(j\bmod m)$$ $$\implies m-1=(m-j+1+j)\bmod m$$ $$\implies m-1=(m+1)\bmod m$$ $$\implies m-1=1$$ $$\implies m=2$$
resulting in a contradiction we may now conclude that $$\forall j\in\{1,2,...,m\}(S(Tv_j)\neq T(Sv_j))$$ implying that $ST\neq TS$.
$\blacksquare$