Is the following proof correct?
Theorem. If $v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4$ is a linearly independent list then $$v_1-v_2,v_2-v_3,v_3-v_4,v_4$$ is also a linearly independent list.
Proof. Assume that $v_1,v_@,v_3,v_4$ is a linearly independent list, Consider now the following equation. $$0=0(v_1-v_2)+0(v_2-v_3)+0(v_3-v_4)+0v_4\tag{1}$$ Let $a_1,a_2,a_3$ and $a_4$ be arbitrary scalars in $\mathbf{F}$ and assume that the following equation holds $$0=a_1(v_1-v_2)+a_2(v_2-v_3)+a_3(v_3-v_4)+a_4v_4\tag{2}$$ After some algebraic manipulation we arrive at the following equation. $$0=a_1v_1+(a_2-a_1)v_2+(a_3-a_2)v_3+(a_4-a_3)v_4\tag{3}$$ Since the list $v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4$ is linearly independent it follows that given any vector in $span(v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4)$ the choice of scalars is unique and since $$0=0v_1+0v_2+0v_3+0v_4\tag{4}$$ It follows that all the scalars in $(3)$ must be $0$, consequently the only way to produce the $0$ vector as a linear combination of the vectors in the list $v_1-v_2,v_2-v_3,v_3-v_4,v_4$ is that indicated in $(1)$.
$\blacksquare$
Here $\mathbf{F}$ is either $\mathbb{C}$ or $\mathbb{R}$.