Let $R$ be a commutative ring, $M,M',N,N'$ be $R$-modules. Under what hypotheses on $M,M',N,N'$ the canonical map $$ {\rm Hom}_R(M,N)\otimes_R{\rm Hom}_R(M',N')\to {\rm Hom}_R(M\otimes_RM',N\otimes_RN')$$ is an isomorphism?
The ring $R$ should be arbitrary (at most noetherian if it simplifies a lot). For instance, I know that it holds in any of the following cases:
(i) $M$ and $M'$ are projective of finite type
(ii) $M$ and $N$ are projective of finite type
(iii) $M$ and $M'$ are finitely presented, $N'$ and ${\rm Hom}_R(M,N)$ flat. I am looking for (reasonable) different or weaker hypotheses. Any natural answer generalizing at once (i) and (iii) would be (probably) preferred.
A second question, related to (iii), is: when ${\rm Hom}_R(M,N)$ is flat? I know that a sufficient condition is $M$ and $N$ injective (at least if $R$ is noetherian).
(There are at least two questions discussing this, but there is no answer to my question: The relationship of $\hom(M\otimes_RN,M'\otimes_RN')$ and $\hom_R(M,M')\otimes\hom_R(N,N')$. and Is there a relation between $End(M)$ and $M$ under tensor products? )