Claim: $${d\over dx}\tanh^{-1}x = {1 \over 1-x^2}$$
My work. Let $y = \tanh^{-1}x$. Then $$\tanh y =x \Rightarrow {d \tanh y \over dy}\cdot {dy\over dx} = 1$$ Since $\tanh y = \dfrac{e^y - e^{-y}}{e^y + e^{-y}}$ then $${d \tanh y \over dy} = d {(e^y - e^{-y})(e^y + e^{-y})^{-1} \over dy}=1 - (e^y - e^{-y})(e^y + e^{-y})^{-2}(e^y - e^{-y})= 0$$ which means $0 \cdot {dy\over dx} = 1$
I think I did something wrong but I cannot find which part it is.
Please, give me some hints or advice.