I wish to prove $$ \left(\sum_{i=1}^n a_ib_i\right)^2 \leq \left(\sum_{i=1}^n a_i^2\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n b_i^2\right) $$ for really numbers $a_1,\dots,a_n,b_1,\dots,b_n$, by using Hölder inequality.
My plan was to define random variables $X = a_i$ with probability $\frac1n$ and $Y=b_i$ with probability $\frac1n$. Then, using Hölder's, I can get
$$ E\vert X\cdot Y\vert \leq \left[\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n a_i^2\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n b_i^2\right)\right]^{1/2} $$ and by squaring that I can get the RHS correct.
However, the LHS is not correct with this definition of $X,Y$. Specifically, $X\cdot Y = a_ib_j$ with probability $\frac{1}{n^2}$ so $$ E(X\cdot Y) =\frac{1}{n^2}\sum_{i=1}^na_i\sum_{j=1}^n b_j $$ which is where I'm stuck. Also, I don't quite see what $E\vert XY\vert$ would be since $a_i b_j$ can be negative, so the absolute value matters.
If $XY$ was uniformly distributed over $\{a_ib_i\}$ then I would be golden.
Hints are much appreciated.