My old book gives the following proof of the Universal Coefficient Theorem for Homology:
https://i.stack.imgur.com/f1YVv.jpg
Then, in the case of the Universal Coefficient Theorem for Cohomology, iy just says:
with no proof. I'm trying to adapt the proof of the version from Homology to the version of Cohomology. It seems that since the result is analogous, the proof might be analogous. For example, I should start picking an exact sequence just like in the first proof. Should I take them in the reverse order, like this:
$$0 \to Z_{n-1}(C)\to C_{n-1}\to Z_n(C)\to H_n(C)\to 0\ ?$$
Or, in order to prove it, I should use the theorem for Homology and arrive at the one for Cohomology?
UPDATE:
I've told to consider:
$$\cdots \to Hom(C_{n-1},G)\to^{\delta^n} \delta^n Hom(C_n,G)\to^{\delta^{n+1}}\to Hom(C_{n+1},G)\to \cdots$$
where $\delta^n = Hom(\partial_n, i)$ is the Hom of $\partial_n:C_n\to C_{n-1}$ and the identity homomorphism $i:G\to G$.
Then, the $n-dimensional cohomology module
$$H^n[Hom(C,G)] = Z^n[Hom(C,G)]/B^n[Hom(C,G)]$$
of $Hom(C,G)$ is called the $n$-dimensional cohomology oh $C$ over the coefficient module $G$ and will be denoted by $H^n(C;G)$. Our objective is to determine $H^n(C;G)$ in terms of $H_n(C)$ and $H_{n-1}(C)$. For this purpose, let us define a homomorphism
$$h:H^n(C;G)\to Hom[H_n(C),G)]$$
for every integer $n$ as follows: Let
$$p:Z^n[Hom(C,G)]\to H^n(C;G)$$
denote the natural projection. To define $h$, let $x$ denote an arbitrary element of $H^n(C;G)$. Selec an element
$$z\in Z^n[Hom(C,G)]\subset Hom(C_n,G)$$
satisfying $p(z) = x$. Since $z\in Hom(C_n,G)$, $z$ is by definition a homomorphism:
$$z:C_n\to G$$
Since $\delta^{n+1}(z) = z\circ \partial_{n+1} = 0$, $z$ sends the submodule $B_n(C)$ into the element $0$ of $G$. Hence $z$ induces a homomorphism
$$z_*:H_n(C)\to G$$
Thus $z_*$ is an element of $Hom[H_n(C),G]$. Since the choice is completely determined by $x$, we may define:
$$h:H^n(C;G)\to Hom[H_n(C),G]$$
by taking $h(x) = z$. It is straightfoward to verify that $h$ is an homomorphism.
Dualizing the proof for the homology version, we have the theorem for cohomology
But this cohomology thing is so different. Do I need to use the proof for the homology or just use the theorem for homology and prove the theorem for cohomology? How should I prove everything?