I already proved normality for meromorphic functions that omit 3 values. I'm trying now to prove normality of family of analytic functions that omit two values. Is there any way to deduce any one of the theorem by the other one?i.e. is there anyway to deduce normality of analytic functions that omit 2 values by the first theorem? please help me to understand how should I prove it either by the first theorem or even without it. I want to use Montel's theorem to do that ( family of functions is normal iff it's locally bounded).
Thanks in advance,