I saw an answer here on the page stating the fact that for a dense sequence $(a_n)$ in $[0, 1]$ and a set of positive measure $A$, the set $\bigcup_{n \geq 1} A + a_n$ has measure $1$ (with respect to the Lebesgue-measure). So I tried to prove it.
Let $B := \left( \bigcup_{n \geq 1} A + a_n \right) \cap \mathbf{R}/ \mathbf{Z}$.
My attempt was to pick an open set $U \supset B$ with $\lambda(U) \leq \lambda (B) + \varepsilon$ for an arbitrary $\varepsilon >0$. This can be done since the Lebesgue measure is outer regular.
But then $U$ contains a dense sequence, hence any non-empty open set $V$ intersects it (the set $U$ being non-empty, as $A$ has positive measure). But then again, as $[0, 1]$ is Hausdorff, we can only have $U = [0, 1]$. As $\varepsilon$ was arbitrary, the set $B$ has measure $1$.
However I'm a bit confused about my "proof". If $B$ were $\mathbf{Q} \cap [0, 1]$, the same argument would show that the measure of $\mathbf{Q} \cap [0, 1]$ is one.
Where is my mistake?
And also: How can one prove the statement?
Thanks!