Let $B$ be a subset of an (additive) abelian group $F$. Then $F$ is free abelian with basis $B$ if the cyclic subgroup $\langle b \rangle$ is infinite cyclic for each $b \in B$ and $F=\sum_{b \in B} \langle b \rangle $ (direct sum). A free abelian group is thus a direct sum of copies of $\Bbb Z$. A typical element $x \in F$ has a unique expression $$x = \sum m_b b$$ where $m_b \in \Bbb Z$ and almost all $m_b$ (all but a finite number) are zero.
I understand that by $F = \sum_{b \in B} \langle b \rangle$ (direct sum), they mean an external direct product of the infinite cyclic subgroups $\langle b \rangle$.
But what does $x=\sum m_bb$ mean?
Since $F = \sum_{b \in B} \langle b \rangle = \{ ...,-b_1, 0, b_1, ...\} \oplus \dots \oplus \{\dots, -b_n, 0, b_n, \dots\}$ and $x \in F$, then $x=(m_1b_1, \dots, m_nb_n)$. But each $b$ is an element of $F$ and therefore by the same logic shouldn't each $b$ be of the form $(j_1b_1, \dots, j_nb_n)$? And therefore $x=(m_1(j_1b_1, \dots, j_nb_n), etc \dots)$?
What exactly am I misunderstanding here? This seems like a circular definition.