In Cartan and Eilenberg, Homological Algebra, Exercise 10, page 123, the last statement is the following: if $A\to B$ is a ring homomorphism such that $B$ is projective as an $A$-module, then for any $A$-module $M$ we have $$ \text{inj.dim}_B(B\otimes_AM)\leq \text{inj.dim}_A(M). $$ This immediately implies that if $B$ projective as an $A$-module and $M$ is an injective $A$-module, then $B\otimes_AM$ is an injective $B$-module.
However, in this stack exchange question, @EricWofsey gave a counter-example: let $A=k[x]$ the polynomial ring over a field $k$ and $B=l[x]$ where $l/k$ is a non-algebraic field extension. Since $A$ and $B$ are PID's, a module is injective if and only if that module is divisible. Let $M=k(x)$ then $M$ is an injective $A$-module. But $B\otimes_A M=l\otimes_k k(x)$ is the subring of $l(x)$ consisting of rational functions which can be written with a denominator in $k[x]$. In particular if $t\in l$ is not algebraic over $k$, then $\frac{1}{x-t}\notin l\otimes_k k(x)$ but $x-t\in l\otimes_k k(x)$. Therefore $l\otimes_k k(x)$ is not divisible hence not injective as an $l[x]$-module.
It seems that this gives a counter-example of Exercise 10. I'm not sure if that exercise is wrong or I misunderstand something.