I'm sure the answer is negative, they are both called "basis" after all, but there is a "paradox" that I can't wrap my head around.
We can write the dirac delta function in the fourier basis as $$ \delta(x) = \frac{1}{2\pi} + \frac{1}{\pi}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \cos nx $$ yet since the delta function is not a "function" per se, it seems that it can't have a taylor series. Does this mean that it can't be expressed in the polynomial basis?
I guess there are 2 possible answers to this question:
- It can still be expressed in the polynomial basis, just by coefficients that are different from those given by a taylor series
- Since the dirac delta is not a function, "basis" theory loses its meaning, and so it does make sense that it can only be expressed by sins and coses. In this sense, is the fourier basis "more powerful/expressive" than the polynomial basis (ie it can also express things such as distributions)