In a larger proof of some theorem in algebraic geometry, an argument is used which I don't really understand. Giving the full proof is clearly over the top, so I tried to minimize the information needed (although I'm not sure if more details are needed). I think it boils down to the following:
Let $f,g \in K[x_1^{\pm1},\dots,x_n^{\pm1}]$ be Laurent polynomials in multiple variables, where $K$ is a field and $f$ is irreducible. Suppose that $\langle f,g \rangle \cap K[x_1^{\pm1},\dots,x_{n-1}^{\pm1}] = \{0\}$. Then, since $f$ is irreducible, $g$ is a multiple of $f$.
Here, "$\langle f,g \rangle$" denotes the ideal generated by $f$ and $g$. I don't clearly see the argument behind it. Can somebody tell me why this needs to hold?
Thanks in advance!
EDIT: Another piece of information that might be helpful is that $f$ has the following special form: When regarding $f$ as polynomial in $x_n$ with coefficients in $K[x_1^{\pm1},\dots,x_{n-1}^{\pm1}]$, the coefficients are all monomials of the form $\displaystyle cx_1^{u_1} \cdots x_{n-1}^{u_{n-1}}$ for $c \in K$ and $u_1, \dots, u_{n-1} \in \mathbb Z$.