How to find if this function is always zero? The question I faced was:

Let $f(x)$ be a non-negative continuous and bounded function for all $x \ge 0$. If
  $$(\cos x)f'(x) \le (\sin x - \cos x)f(x), \; \forall \; x \ge 0$$
  then which of the following is/are correct?
(A) $f(6) + f(5) > 0$
(B) $x^2 - 3x + 2 + f(9) = 0$ has two distinct solutions
(C) $f(5)f(7) - f(6)f(5) = 0$
(D) $\lim\limits_{x \to 4} \dfrac{f(x) - \sin(\pi x)}{x-4} = 1$

The answer is:

 (B), (C)

By observation, $f(x)=0$ satisfies the given conditions. But is it the only solution? If so, how to prove it is?
After rearranging the terms and combining them, I converted the inequality to this form:
$$ \left( f(x)\,\cos x \right)' + f(x)\,\cos x \le 0 $$
Despite its allure, this inequality isn't getting me anywhere! It doesn't seem to have any information about $f(x)$, since it is stuck with a "$\cos x$". Even then, I don't see where I can go with it.
So how to solve this problem? Thank you.
 A: If you set $g(x)=f(x)\cos x$, your rearrangement tells you that
$$ \tag{1} g'(x) \le -g(x) $$
Consider an interval $[2\pi k-\frac12\pi , 2\pi k +\frac12\pi]$ where $\cos x$ is $\ge 0$. Then you know that $g(x)\ge 0$ on this interval, and $g(x)=0$ at the start of the interval. Then, because of (1), $g(x)$ must be identically zero on that interval, and so must $f(x)$.
This settles at least (A) and (C), because $5$, $6$ and $7$ are all within $\pi/2$ of $2\pi$.

For (B) and (D) this argument doesn't tell you enough; I recommend Peter's slicker answer instead.
A: We assume that $f(x)$ is bounded and non-negative, for $x \geqslant 0$. This means that there is a non-negative function $g(x)$ with the property that $f(x) = g(x)e^{-x}$ for $x \geqslant 0$.
Plugging this into the inequality you found gives,
\begin{equation}
 0 \geqslant (f(x)\cos (x))' + f(x) \cos (x) = e^{-x} (g(x) \cos(x))'.
\end{equation}
And since $e^{-x} > 0$, we have
\begin{equation}
 0 \geqslant (g(x) \cos(x))'.
\end{equation}
This means that the function $g(x) \cos(x)$ is weakly decreasing. Because any point $x \in \mathbb{R}$ is between two zeroes of $\cos(x)$, we have that $g(x) \cos(x) = 0$ for all $x$.
A: Notice that whenever some $f$ satisfies the hypothesis, then so does any positive multiple of $f$. In particular:
Note that (B) is equivalent to
$$0<(-3)^2-4(2+f(9)) = 1-4f(9)$$
i.e. $f(9)<1/4$. Hence (B) can hold if and only if $f(9) =0$ for any $f$ satisfying the hypothesis.
