I'm taking an introductory course in topology and we have a homework exercise to compute the fundamental group of X = $\mathbb{R} \big / \{-1, 1\}$ under the group action $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ taking $(n, r)$ to $nr$.
The way I want to approach this is using the Van Kampen theorem(not explicitly stated). Is it correct to think of the equivalence classes of the quotient space as the set, $U$, of positive real numbers and the set, $V$, of negative real numbers (since we multiply by either 1 or -1)?
If so, since the union of $U$ and $V$ is X and their intersection is just $\{ 0 \}$, can we apply the Van Kampen theorem to said sets to conclude that $\pi_1(X) = \pi_1(U)*\pi_1(V) = 0$ in the sense that both $U$ and $V$ are both contractible spaces(or simply connected) and have trivial fundamental group.
An alternative approach would be to use the covering space theory, but I don't think the action is properly discontinuous since $\{0\} \cap n*\{0\} \neq \emptyset$, or any interval containing 0 for that matter. So I don't think that is a better approach. Any hint or clarification to how to use the Van Kampen theorem in this example would be appreciated!