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I was curious as to if a hunch I had was right, and after doing some research it seems it is, but I don't see enough information to prove it. For a given complicated or special function that is defined as an integral, like the arctangent function, the gamma function, the error function, or just the logarithm function or any other function defined in a similar way, what's the process for finding an explicit inverse of that function? The inverse can also be in integral form, but all I really know for sure is it has something to do with the inverse function theorem

Also how do I type math equations here? I don't see any latex.

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  • $\begingroup$ This link takes you to a quick summary of math formatting on math.SE. $\endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Commented Apr 21, 2017 at 6:24
  • $\begingroup$ For information about writing math at this site see e.g. here, here, here and here. $\endgroup$
    – mlc
    Commented Apr 21, 2017 at 6:29
  • $\begingroup$ Alright thanks, I'll keep that in mind. $\endgroup$
    – RayOfHope
    Commented Apr 21, 2017 at 7:12

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