My text claims that the following is true, but this seems erroneous to me. Am I correct in believing that this is an error in the text?
$$\neg(\exists x \forall y \;(x \geq y)) \iff \forall x\; \neg(\forall y, (x\geq y))$$
Thank you for your help!
My text claims that the following is true, but this seems erroneous to me. Am I correct in believing that this is an error in the text?
$$\neg(\exists x \forall y \;(x \geq y)) \iff \forall x\; \neg(\forall y, (x\geq y))$$
Thank you for your help!
It's correct.
In general you have:
$$\neg \exists x \phi \Leftrightarrow \forall x \neg \phi$$
for any variable $x$ and formula $\phi$. Informally that makes sense: if it is not true that there is something for which something holds, then apparently that something does not hold true for everything, and vice versa. Or, given that typically $\phi$ says something about $x$, i.e expresses some property of $x$: If there isn't anything with some property, then everything does not have that property, and vice versa.
Now, in your case, $\phi$ happens to be $\forall y \ x \ge y$, which may be somewhat confusing given the presence of another quantifier, but the general rule always applies, so just plug it in, and you get:
$$\neg \exists x \forall y \ x \ge y \Leftrightarrow \forall x \neg \forall y \ x \ge y$$