Proving limit with $\log(n!)$ I am trying to calculate the following limits, but I don't know how:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3\cdot \sqrt{n}}{\log(n!)}$$
And the second one is
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log(n!)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}$$
I don't need to show a formal proof, and any tool can be used.
Thanks!
 A: You can easily show that $2^n \leq n! \leq n^n$ for $n \geq 4$.  The first inequality is a very standard induction proof, and the second inequality is straight-forward (you're comparing $1 \times 2 \times \dots \times n$ with $n \times n \times \dots \times n$).  
From there, since $f(n) = \log n$ is an increasing function, you have that
$$n\log(2) \leq \log(n!) \leq n\log(n)$$
This tells you basically everything you will need.  For example, for the first one:
$$
\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{3 \sqrt{n}}{n\log n} \leq \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{3 \sqrt{n}}{\log(n!)} \leq \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{3 \sqrt{n}}{n \log(2)}.
$$
A: If you use the fact that $ (\ln(x!))'= \psi(x+1)$, where $\psi(x)$ is the digamma function, and l'hopital's rule, then the first limit can be evaluated directly 
$$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3\cdot \sqrt{n}}{\log(n!)}=\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{3}{2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}\psi(n+1)}=0 \,,$$ 
where the fact that $$ \lim_{n\to \infty} \psi(n+1)=\infty \,, $$
has been used.
For the second limit, recalling the asymptotic of $\ln(n!)$
$$\ln(n!)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln(k)\sim \int_{1}^{n} \ln(x)dx \sim n\ln(n)-n+1, $$
we have
$$ \frac{\log(n!)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}\sim \frac{n\ln(n)-n+1}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}} \,.$$
Making the change of variables $m=\ln(n)$ yields
$$ \frac{\log(n!)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}\sim \frac{n\ln(n)-n+1}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}=\frac{me^m-e^m+1}{m^m} \rightarrow 0 $$
as $m\to \infty,$ since $m^m>me^m \,\,\, \forall m>4. $ 
Note: we can use $\ln(n!)\sim n\ln(n)-n+1 $ to prove the first limit goes to $0$.
A: Stirling's approximation yields
$$
\log(n!)=\left(n+\frac12\right)\left(\log(n)-1\vphantom{\frac12}\right)+\frac12\log(2\pi e)+O\left(\frac1n\right)
$$
which implies
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log(n!)}{n\log(n)}=1
$$
Then for the first limit
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3\sqrt n}{\log(n!)}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac3{\sqrt{n}\log(n)}=0
$$
For the second limit
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log(n!)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n\log(n)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}\stackrel{n\to e^n}{=}\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{e^nn}{n^n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{2e}{n}\right)^n\frac{n}{2^n}=0
$$
A: For the first one you can solve it using stoltz lemma 
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3\cdot \sqrt{n}}{\log(n!)}= \lim _{n\rightarrow \infty} \frac{3\cdot \sqrt{n+1}-3\cdot \sqrt{n}}{\log((n+1)!)-\log n!}=\lim _ {n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{3 }{(\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt{n})(\log(n+1))}=0$$
For the second observe you can rewrite the denominator as 
$\log(n)^{\log(n)}=e^{\log n\log (\log n)}=n^{\log (\log n)}$
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log(n!)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}\leq
 \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n\log(n)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}
=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log(n)}{n^{\log (\log n)-1}}$$
Therefore $n>e^{e^3} \Rightarrow \log ( \log n)-1>2\Rightarrow n^{\log ( \log n)-1}>n^{2} \Rightarrow \frac{\log(n)}{n^{\log (\log n)-1}} \leq \frac{\log n}{n^2}$
So finally $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log(n!)}{\log(n)^{\log(n)}}\leq \lim _{ n \rightarrow \infty }\frac{\log n}{n^2}=0$$
A: Start with the fact that $\ln n!=\sum_{k=1}^n\ln k$. A look at the graph of $y=\ln x$ shows that
$$\sum_{k=1}^n\ln k\ge\int_1^n\ln x~dx=\Big[x\ln x-x\Big]_1^n=n\ln n-n+1\;,$$
so
$$0\le\frac{3\sqrt n}{\ln n!}\le\frac{3\sqrt n}{n\ln n-n+1}<\frac3{(\ln n-1)\sqrt n}\;.$$
Clearly $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac3{(\ln n-1)\sqrt n}=0$, so $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3\sqrt n}{\ln n!}=0$.
Similarly, $$\ln n!=\sum_{k=1}^n\ln k\le\int_1^{n+1}\ln x~dx=(n+1)\ln(n+1)-n\;,$$
so
$$0\le\frac{\ln n!}{(\ln n)^{\ln n}}\le\frac{(n+1)\ln(n+1)-n}{(\ln n)^{\ln n}}\le\frac{(n+1)\ln(n+1)}{(\ln n)^{\ln n}}\le\frac{(n+1)^2}{(\ln n)^{\ln n}}\le\frac{4n^2}{(\ln n)^{\ln n}}$$ for $n\ge 1$. And 
$$\frac{4n^2}{(\ln n)^{\ln n}}=\frac{4e^{2\ln n}}{(\ln n)^{\ln n}}=4\left(\frac{e^2}{\ln n}\right)^{\ln n}\to 0$$
as $n\to\infty$, so the second limit is also $0$.
A: For the first one, use that $\log(n!) \sim n \log n$ as $n \to \infty$ to conclude that
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3\cdot \sqrt{n}}{\log(n!)} = \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3\cdot \sqrt{n}}{n\log n} = \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{3}{\sqrt{n}\log n} = 0
$$
A: Note that even $\ln{n!} \rightarrow \ln(n^n)$ $n!$ does not approche $n^n$
