Let $A$ convex set
$(1)$ If $y\in\bar{A}$ and $x\in\text{int}(A)$ then $\lambda x+(1-\lambda)y\in\text{int}(A)$, $\forall\,0<\lambda<1$
$(2)$ $\bar{A}$ and $\text{int}(A)$ are convex sets.
My teacher said (without showing how) that $(1)$ and $(2)$ can be used to show that
If $\text{int}(A)\neq \phi$ then $\bar{A}=\text{closure}(\text{int}(A))$ and $\text{int}(A)=\text{int}(\bar{A})$
But I am not sure why this is true. Does anyone know how this is true?