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Suppose the least-squares regression line for $y$ and $x$ is $y = kx$. Given that $0 < k < 1$, can we say anything about the means of $y$ and $x$? Can we infer that $\bar{y} < \bar{x}$?

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1 Answer 1

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As I recall, the least squares coefficient for $y = kx$ is $k = \frac{\sum xy}{\sum x^2} $.

This doesn't say anything about the means of $x$ and $y$, but does imply imformation about the means of $xy$ and $x^2$.

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