Let $T:l^\infty\rightarrow l^\infty$ be defined by $(x_1,x_2, \dots)\mapsto (x_2,x_3,\dots)$.
I have seen a claim without justification that $\|T\|=1$, but I am not convinced. I know that
$\|T\| = \sup_{{\|x\|=1}}\|Tx\|$ . If $\|x\|=1$ then surely $\|Tx\|\le 1$. So
$$\|T\| = \sup\limits_{\|x\|=1}\|Tx\|\le 1.$$
I don't see how it can be claimed that $\|T\| = 1$
Is it true or I am missing something?