I am wondering if it is possible to prove the properties of the Fourier transform (such as scaling or differentiation) formally using their action on test functions?
We know that if $f(t)$ is a generalized function, its Fourier transform is also a generalized function whose action on a test function $\varphi$ is
$$\langle F(\nu), \Phi(\nu)\rangle = \langle f(t), \varphi (-t)\rangle.$$
And inverse Fourier transformation is:
$$\langle f(t), \varphi (t)\rangle=\langle F(\nu), \Phi(-\nu)\rangle.$$
My attempt so far:
(i) $f(at) \leftrightarrow \frac{1}{|a|}F(\frac{\nu}{a})$
I started from the definition of distributions
$$\langle f(at), \varphi(t)\rangle = \intop^\infty_{-\infty} f(at)\varphi(t) dt $$
I need to arrive at $\langle \frac{1}{|a|}F(\frac{\nu}{a}), \Phi(-\nu)\rangle$. How can we do this? I played with some manipulations such as substitution $u=at$, but they didn't work.
(ii) $\frac{df(t)}{dt} \leftrightarrow j2\pi \nu F(\nu)$
Just like the previous case, I don't see how I can arrive at the required result:
$$\langle \frac{df(t)}{dt}, \varphi(t)\rangle =^? \langle j2\pi \nu F(\nu), \Phi(-\nu)\rangle$$
I am not sure if this would be useful, but for differentiation we have a property that:
$$\langle f'(t), \varphi(t)\rangle = -\langle f(t), \varphi '(t)\rangle.$$
I have never seen a proof of this in any textbook. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated.