This is my first week studying logic, and I am a bit stumped on the following problem:
Show $\alpha \leftrightarrow \psi$ is a tautology if and only if $\alpha \approx \psi$
Here's what I'm thinking:
Assume $\alpha\leftrightarrow\psi$ Is a tautology. Then \begin{align} (\alpha\rightarrow\psi)\wedge (\psi\rightarrow\alpha)\approx T\\ \implies (\neg \alpha \vee \psi)\wedge(\neg\psi\vee\alpha)\approx T \end{align}
And then I don't know where to go.
In the other direction, assume $\alpha\approx \psi$. Thus $[[ \alpha ]]=[[\psi]]$ is true in all interpretations. Then \begin{align} (\neg \alpha \vee \psi)&\wedge(\neg\psi\vee\alpha)&= \\ 1 &\wedge 1& = 1 \end{align} Since if (WLOG) $[[\alpha]]=1$, then $[[\neg \psi]]=0$, thus \begin{align} (\neg \alpha \vee \psi)&\wedge(\neg\psi\vee\alpha)&\approx T \end{align}
So i need help with the first part, and it would be nice to get comments on how sound my argument for the converse is. Thank you!