Consider the statement:
The Euclidean metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is rotationally invariant.
I interpret this to mean (is this interpretation correct?):
The Euclidean metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is invariant under the action of the orthogonal group $O(n)$.
However, the orthogonal group $O(n)$ is defined in terms of the Euclidean metric (as the group of all self-maps $\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ which preserve Euclidean distance and fix the origin).
This suggests that we are implicitly using the following definition of "rotation":
Rotations are the set of all (orientation-preserving) isometries of $\mathbb{R}^n$ which fix the origin.
Question: Why is the first claim "the Euclidean metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is rotationally invariant" noteworthy/not trivial if we are implicitly using this definition/notion of rotation?
(I.e., of course the metric is preserved by a group of isometries.)
When we define "rotations", how are we not implicitly choosing a preferred metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$?
/Question
Clarifying example: In contrast,
The taxicab metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is not rotationally invariant.
In other words,
The taxicab metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is not invariant under the action of $O(n)$.
But what if we consider, instead of $O(n)$, what I will call $T(n)$ ("taxicab orthogonal group") of all self-maps $\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ which preserve taxicab distance and fix the origin?
It seems fairly clear that we have:
The taxicab metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is invariant under $T(n)$.
or in other words
The taxicab metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is "taxicab-rotationally invariant".
Note: This is a very dumb question, so if you have any suggestions for how it could be improved, or if it should just be deleted, please say so (nicely).