I am attending a seminar on Number Theory and we were proving the prime number theorem.
This is the proof we were woring on:
http://people.mpim-bonn.mpg.de/zagier/files/doi/10.2307/2975232/fulltext.pdf
Im at the part were we prove the equality:
$$ \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^s} = \prod_p \frac{1}{1 - p^{-s}} $$
So... maybe its pretty trivial but, I don´t understand where this comes from:
$\sum_{r_{1},r_{2},...}^{\infty}\ (2^{r_2}2^{r_3}...)^{-s}$ = $\prod_p\ (\sum_{r≥0} \ p^{-rs} )$
I get how you get to the first part of the equality (i.e. $\sum_{r_{1},r_{2},...}^{\infty}\ (2^{r_2}2^{r_3}...)^{-s}$), because we are working on an unique factorization domain, and because the Riemann zeta-function converges absolutely. But I cannot seem to grasp how do you get that product of sums.
P.S. I am sory if this question is too trivial, but i searched for this proof and cannot seem o find someone who does it this way.