# Implicit function theorem and systems of equations

I have some troubles with the next exercise. It's so hard. I have been trying and I can't found the solution.

In the next system of equations, can we express in a neighborhood of the point $$\overline{w_0}=(\overline{x_0},t_0)=\left(\pi,\displaystyle\frac{\pi}{2},1\right)$$ the variables $$x$$ and $$y$$? $$\left\{ \begin{array}{cc} \cos(x)+t\sin(y) & = & 0\\ \sin(x)-\cos(ty) & = & 0 \end{array} \right.$$

Then, we consider the functions $$f_1=\cos(x)+t\sin(y)=0$$ and $$f_2=\sin(x)-\cos(ty)=0$$. We want to see that the function $$f:\mathbb{R}^3\times\mathbb{R}^3\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^2$$ defined as $$f(\overline{x},t)=(f_1(\overline{x},t),f_2(\overline{x},t))$$ is Continuously Differentiable, but is clear, because the partial derivatives of $$f$$ are continuous. Then, $$f\in C^{1}$$

In this way, the derivative matrix is $$\left( \begin{array}{ccc} \sin(x) & t\cos(y) & t\sin(y)\\ \cos(x) & t\sin(y) & y\sin(ty) \end{array} \right)$$

We should to see the sub-matrix

$$$$\left( \begin{array}{cc} \sin(x) & t\cos(y)\\ \cos(x) & t\sin(y) \end{array} \right)_{\overline{w_0}} = \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0 & 0\\ -1 & 1 \end{array} \right)$$$$

The determinant of this matrix, clearly, is zero and thus, the matrix is not invertible. Then, the hypothesis of the Implicit function theorem are not fulfilled. Then, what can I do?

We are looking for a function $$g(t)=(x(t),y(t))$$ such that $$f(g(t),t)=0$$ and moreover $$\left( \pi,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=f(1)=(x(1),y(1))$$. If the hypothesis of the theorem are not fulfilled, how can we conclude that we can't express the variables $$x$$ and $$y$$? Or, can we although the hypothesis are not fulfilled? Really I need help with this. I really appreciate any help you can provide me.

• Check your derivative matrix! (Unfortunately the problem remains.) Commented Apr 29, 2017 at 13:22

If you make the change of variables $$x= \pi +u, \quad y= \pi/2 +v, \quad t =1+s,$$ then your problem becomes $$\cos u -(1+s) \cos v =0, \quad \sin u - \sin (v+ \pi s/2 +sv)=0,$$ and your problem is now around $(u,v,s)=(0,0,0)$. But if $s=0$, you have the problem $$\cos u - \cos v =0, \quad \sin u - \sin v=0,$$ which has solutions $u=v$ for all $u$. So, near $s=u=v=0$ the Implicit function Theorem does not work because there is no map $s \mapsto (u(s),v(s))$ which defines a unique function (you have a line of solutions!)