I'm working on the following problem from Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds:
Show that $T\mathbb{S}^1$ is diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{S}^1\times\mathbb{R}$
I am trying to apply a procedure that I saw e.g. in the computation of the Lie Algebra of $SO(3)$:
For some point $p\in\mathbb{S}^1$ take a curve $\gamma(t)\in\mathbb{S}^1$ with $\gamma(0)=p$ and $\gamma'(0)=v$ where $v$ will be the tangent vector. Differentiating the defining property of the sphere ($x^2+y^2=1$) leads to $2x(0)\cdot x'(0)+2y(0)\cdot y'(0)=0 \Leftrightarrow p^T v=0$
Hence, $T_p\mathbb{S}^1=\left\{v\in\mathbb{R}^2:p^Tv = 0\right\}$. Since $p$ is not zero, this is a 1-dimensional subspace of $\mathbb{R}^2$ which is clearly diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$. Then, $T\mathbb{S}^1$ is the union over all $T_p\mathbb{S}^1$ and thus diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{S}^1\times\mathbb{R}$ (for each point $p\in\mathbb{S}^1$ we have a tangent space at p diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$).
Is my reasoning correct? What would be the easiest way to show this?