Consider this integral $(1)$
$$\int_{0}^{1}{1\over \sqrt[4]{\ln \left({1\over x}\right)+\ln^2\left({1\over x}\right)}}\cdot{\mathrm dx\over x}=-\Gamma\left(-{2\over 4}\right)\cdot{\Gamma\left({3\over 4}\right)\over \Gamma\left({1\over 4}\right)}\tag1$$
How can one prove $(1)$?
An attempt:
Rewrite $(1)$ as
$$\int_{0}^{1}(-\ln x+\ln^2(x))^{-1/4}\cdot{\mathrm dx\over x}\tag2$$
$u=\ln x \implies x\mathrm du =\mathrm dx$ then $(2)$ becomes
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}(u^2-u)^{-1/4}\mathrm du\tag3$$
May be we can split it into partial decomposition of fraction
$${1\over u^{1/4}(u-1)^{1/4}}={A\over u^{1/4}}+{B\over (u-1)^{1/4}}$$
Then $(3)$ becomes
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}{\color{red}{A\over u^{1/4}}}+{B\over (u-1)^{1/4}}\mathrm du\tag4$$
But the red part diverges, how else can we tackle $(1)?$