I need to prove that
$$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}\frac{xy}{\sqrt{x^2 +y^2}}=0$$
And I have already found some questions with the exact same question but I guess I proceeded in a somewhat different way.
The limit exists if for each $\epsilon>0$, there is $\delta>0$ such that
$$\left|\cfrac{xy}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}} -L\right|<\epsilon$$
And $|x-a|<\delta,|x-a|<\delta$ or $|(x,y)-(a,b)|<\delta$ and $x\neq a, y \neq b $.
I made a somewhat experimental approach and would like to talk about it. I learned that we can try to approach the limit with some paths: polar coordinates, lines, etc. So I give a shot: As the limit goes to $(0,0)$, it seemed natural to try: $x \to \frac{1}{m} $ as $m \to \infty $, and $y\to \frac{1}{n}$ as $n\to \infty$, this gives me:
$$\left|\cfrac{1}{\sqrt{m^2+n^2}}\right|<\epsilon$$
$$\left|\frac{1}{m}\right |<\delta \quad \quad \left|\frac{1}{n}\right|<\delta $$
And with this, I guess that we can see that we can approach $0$ arbitrarily. But if we take the other form:
$$\left|\sqrt{\frac{1}{m^2}+\frac{1}{n^2}}\right|<\delta$$
$$\left|\sqrt{\frac{m^2+n^2}{m^2n^2}}\right|<\delta$$
$$\left|\frac{\sqrt{m^2+n^2}}{ mn} \right|<\delta$$
But now it seems that we can't have a $\delta$ for every $\epsilon$ chosen. So how can they be equivalent? I may be missing something. Also, one important question:
Q: I learned the definitions with $\epsilon, \delta$ and the idea of looking for a possible limit by some paths as different ways: The first one seems to be used to prove that there is a limit, but the second one seems to be a cheap method to gather evidence that it couldn't be (if the value is different for two paths, then the limit does not exist), but in the above example, I merged them both. Is this usually viable or do I incur the same problem of not having the same value for different paths implies the non-existence of the limit?
I had also the (incomplete?) idea of trying to approach the limit with a circle $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and take the limit of $c\to 0$ but am a little confused if it could be done.
$$\left|\frac{\sqrt{c^2-a^2} \sqrt{c^2-b^2}}{\sqrt{-a^2-b^2+2 c^2}}-0\right|<\epsilon$$
$$\left|\frac{\sqrt{c^2-a^2} \sqrt{c^2-b^2}}{\sqrt{-a^2-b^2+ c^2+c^2}}\right|<\epsilon\tag{$c^2-a^2-c^2=0$}$$
$$\left|\frac{\sqrt{c^2-a^2} \sqrt{c^2-b^2}}{c}\right|<\epsilon$$
As $b^2=c^2-a^2$ and $a^2=c^2-b^2$, then:
$$\left|\frac{ba}{c}\right|<\epsilon$$
As $c\to 0$, I guess we can make the substitution $c:= \frac{1}{n}$ with $n\to \infty$, then:
$$\left|abn\right|<\epsilon$$
And here, as $n\to \infty $, $c\to 0$ and due to $a^2+b^2=c^2$, then $a,b\to 0$. As for the $\delta$, then:
$$\left|\left( \sqrt{c^2-a^2},\sqrt{c^2-b^2} \right) -(0,0)\right|<\delta$$
$$\left| \left( \sqrt{c^2-a^2+c^2-b^2 }\right)\right|<\delta\tag{$c^2-a^2-c^2=0$}$$
$$|c|<\delta$$
Are these moves acceptable? If not, do you know at least one counterexample? I'd like to see why it doesn't work - if it doesn't work.