Let H$_{3}$(R) denote the Heisenberg group of 3 x 3 real matrices. For any A $\in$ H$_{3}$(R) such that
A = $\left( \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & a & b \\ 0 & 1 & c \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{array} \right)$ , $\exists$ a continuous path A(t), 0 $\leq$ t $\leq$ 1, from I to A given by
A(t) = $ \left( \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & a(t) & b(t) \\ 0 & 1 & c(t) \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{array} \right)$ .
Let v be the tangent vector of A(t) at identity (t=0), then v= $\frac{d}{dt}$ A(t)|$_{t=o}$.Then shouldn't
v = A'(0) = $ \left( \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & \frac {d}{dt}0 & \frac{d}{dt}0 \\ 0 & 1 & \frac{d}{dt}0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{array} \right)$ = $ \left( \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{array} \right)$ ?
If this is correct, then is the tangent space of H$_{3}$(R) the standard, orthonormal basis of R$^3$?
(Apologies if this is horribly fallacious, I'm new to lie algebra)