My instructor notes (his written notes on blackboard while teaching) states that
The sequence $a_n\to-\infty$ as $n\to\infty$ if for all $M\in\mathbb{R}$, there exists $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $$n\geq N\Rightarrow a_n<M$$
However, when I try to show that the sequence $a_n=n-n^2$ approaches $-\infty$ as $n\to\infty$, I have difficulty because I am not sure what $N$ needs to be.
Is it likely that there is a typo in the definition and the definition should really be the following?
The sequence $a_n\to-\infty$ as $n\to\infty$ if for all real $M<0$, there exists $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $$n\geq N\Rightarrow a_n<M$$
If the second definition is right, how can I use this second definition to show the divergence of the sequence $a_n=n-n^2$?
This is my analysis so far: When I try to solve the inequality $n-n^2<M$ which is equivalent to $n^2-n+M>0$, my discriminant of the quadratic in $n$ is $1-4M$, so now I have two consider three cases: (1) If $M=1/4$, then $n^2-n+M$ is a perfect square and so $n^2-n+m>0$ is true for all $n\geq1$. (2) If $1-4M<0$, then $n^2-n+M$ does not cut the $x$-axis and so is always positive since it is above the $x$ axis for all $n\geq1$. (3) If $1-4M>0$, then I get two roots and $n^2-n+M>0$ for all $n<n_1$ or $n>n_2$ where $n_1$ and $n_2$ are roots of the quadratic equation $n^2-n+M$. So if I take $N\geq\max\{1,n_2\}$, then it seems to work but I am not sure if it is correct.