I see examples on Stack Exchange and elsewhere of Banach spaces with non-complemented subspaces (examples: 1, 2 [Remark 8], 3 [a remarkable example of a Banach space with no complemented closed subspaces]). My question is thus:
We know that every vector space (and therefore every Banach space) has a vector space basis. Therefore, for a Banach space $X$ and a subspace $E$, we can write a basis $\mathcal{B}_E$ for $E$ and extend it to a basis $\mathcal{B}$ for $X$. Consider $F$ to be the subspace spanned by $\mathcal{B}\setminus \mathcal{B}_E$. Why is $F$ not necessarily a complementary subspace to $E$? It seems that for $v\in X$, we should have that $v$ is uniquely represented by an element of $E$ plus an element of $F$, since it is uniquely represented by a finite linear combination of elements in $\mathcal{B}$ (and we can therefore segregate those elements into elements of $\mathcal{B}_E$ and $\mathcal{B}\setminus \mathcal{B}_E$). Also, it seems that $E\cap F = \{0\}$, since the basis vectors for $E$ and $F$ are linearly independent from each other. Could somebody please help by pointing out where I might have made a faulty assumption?