Is it true that the following inequality holds for any continuous, non-negative, and concave function $f:[0,1]\to \mathbb{R}$? $$\frac{3}{2}\,f(0)\int_0^1 xf(x)dx\leq \left(\int_0^1f(x)dx\right)^2.$$
Some thoughts. By homogeneity, we may assume that $f(0)=1$ (the case $f(0)=0$ is trivial).
Moreover, by concavity, for $x\in[0,1]$, $$f(x)=f((1-x)\cdot 0+x\cdot 1)\geq (1-x)f(0)+xf(1)\geq 1-x$$ because $f(1)\geq 0$.
Hence the function $h(x):=f(x)-(1-x)$ is continuous, non-negative and concave on $[0,1]$ and the inequality is equivalent to $$\frac{3}{2}\int_0^1 xh(x)dx\leq \left(\int_0^1h(x)dx\right)^2+\int_0^1h(x)dx,$$ that is $$\int_0^1 \left(\frac{3}{2}x-1\right)h(x)dx\leq \left(\int_0^1h(x)dx\right)^2.$$ So it suffices to show $$\int_0^1 \left(x-\frac{2}{3}\right)h(x)dx\leq 0$$ where $h(x)$ is a continuous, non-negative concave function on $[0,1]$ and $h(0)=0$.
Any hints or references are welcome.