This might seem an obvious/stupid question, but I can't seem to find the way through it. Sorry in advance if anything I do is not very rigorous, I come from physics !
Say we have an action $S = \int_a^b L(t,v,\dot{v})dt$. We are familiar with the process of minimazing this action using the calculus of variations, namely varying $v' = v+\epsilon\delta v$ for arbitrarily small $\epsilon$ and $\delta v$ a sufficiently smooth function.
If we compute now $\delta S$ we get, by integration by parts $\delta S = \int_a^b (\partial_vL- \frac{d}{dt}\partial_{\dot{v}}L)\epsilon\delta v dt +\epsilon\partial_{\dot{v}}L\delta v(b)-\epsilon\partial_{\dot{v}}L\delta v(a)$
Now, usually, we set $\delta v(a) = \delta v(b) = 0$, and we get the Euler-Lagrange equation by requiring 0 variation for S. My question is, do we need to enforce vanishing of the variation of the boundary ? Is it something that is embedded somehow in the process of the calculus of variation, or is it just a reasonable choice ?
Could we, for example, set the derivative of the variation on the boundary instead ? If so, is it possible to still derive some kind of differential equation like the Euler-Lagrange one ?
My guess would be that $\delta v$ on the boundary vanishes is a requirement for this kind of development, but I am unable to justify it to myself.